Posted 23 Apr 2005 · Report post Wouldn't that depend on what you mean by "come to agreement?" If they signed a binding contract to that effect, I would say that she still has the moral right to terminate the pregnancy if, with reason, she changed her mind, but legally she could be responsible for damages←That sort of answer is exactly why I wasn't more specific.Go on... Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Posted 23 Apr 2005 · Report post That sort of answer is exactly why I wasn't more specific.Go on... ←If you mean to go on with other cases, I see nothing special there. If they simply agreed and the woman changed her mind, I see little difference between that and her changing her mind about buying a pet after they had agreed to do so. In both cases I see nothing morally wrong, assuming that she had good reasons and these were not arbitrary decisions. But, did you have something else in mind? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites